2013年7月31日星期三

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Code d'Examen: 070-486J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications (070-486日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-486J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications (70-486日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-482J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript (070-482日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-482J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript (70-482日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 あなたは ASP .NET MVC ゕプリケーショ ンを開発しています。ASP .NET メンバーシッ プ?
データベー スを使 用し てクラ゗ゕ ントを 認証 する必要が ありま す。 どの認証メソッ ドを 実
装しなければなりませんか。
A. Kerberos
B. Forms
C. Basic
D. Windows
Answer: B

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NO.2 productId 要件を 満たすためにゕ プリケーションを修正する必要があります。何を行わ
なければなりませんか。
A. 以下の通りに Global.asax.es フゔ゗ルの RegisterGlobalFilters メソッドを修正する。
Contract.Assume<ArgumentException>(productId != 0);
B. 以下の通りに ProductController の GetDealPrice メ ソ ッ ド を 修 正 す る 。
Contract.Requires<ArgumentException>(productId > 0);
C. 以 下 の 通 り に Global.asax.es フ ゔ ゗ ル の RegisterGlobalFilters メ ソ ッ ド を 修 正 す る 。
Contract.Requires<ArgumentException>(productId > 0);
D. 以 下 の 通 り に ProductController の GetDealPrice メ ソ ッ ド を 修 正 す る 。
Contract.Assume<ArgumentException>(productId > 0);
Answer: B

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NO.3 開発者が RDP を 使用して Windows Azure ロールに接続できる ことを保証する必要があ
ります。 何を行わなければなりませんか。
A. 秘密鍵なしで証明 書をエクスポー トする 。Azure 管理ポータルの管理証明書セ クショ ン
に.cer フゔ゗ルをゕップロードする。
B. 秘密鍵で証明書を エクスポートする。Azure 管理ポータルの管 理証明書セクションに.pfx
フゔ゗ルをゕップロードする。
C. 秘密鍵なしで証明 書をエクスポートする。 Azure の管理ポータ ルでサービスをホストする
TranscodeWorkerRole の 証明書セクションに.cer フゔ゗ルをゕップロードする。
D. 秘密鍵で証明書をエクスポートする。Azure の 管 理 ポ ー タ ル で サ ー ビ ス を ホ ス ト す る
TranscodeWorkerRole の 証明書セクションに.pfx フゔ゗ルをゕップロードする。
Answer: D

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NO.4 あなたは Product クラスを使用して Windows Communication Foundation (WCF ) サー ビ
スを設計しています。 ストレージ要件を満たすためにクラスを更新する必要があります。 何
を行わなければなりませんか。 ( 正解はそれ ぞれソリューションの一部を示します。 当ては
まるものすべて を選んでください。)
A. DataContract 属性で Product クラスをマー クする。
B. DataContractFormat 属性で Product クラス のパブリックメンバをマークする。
C. CollectionDataContract 属性で Product クラ スをマークする。
D. DataMember プロパ テゖ属性で Product ク ラスのパブリックメンバをマークする。
Answer: AD

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NO.5 あなたは Web フ ゔームに配備される ASP .NET MVC ゕプリケ ーションを開発していま
す。 パスワードは web.config フゔ゗ルに格納されなければならなくて、 判読可能または容易
に解読することができるフォーマットであってはいけません。web.config フゔ゗ルに格納さ
れるパ スワ ード を暗 号 化する 必要 があ りま す 。 どのコ マン ド? ラ゗ ン? ツー ルを使 用し な け
ればなりませんか。
A. Aspnet_regiis.exe
B. Ngen.exe
C. Aspnet_merge.exe
D. EdmGen.exe
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   70-486J   70-486J   70-486J
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/zhhddkxy(v=vs.100).aspx

NO.6 あなたは ASP .NET MVC ゕプリケーショ ンを開発しています。 ゕプリケーションは Web
フゔームで展開され、 多くのユーザーによってゕクセスされます。 ゕプリケーションはうま
く Web サーバの故障 を処理する必要があります。フゔーム内のサーバーは短期的な状態情
報を共有する必要があります。 セッション中にゕプリケーションの状態を永続化する必要が
あります。何を実装しなければなりませんか。
A. ASP .NET セッション 状態
B. ローカル? データベ ース
C. ステート? サーバー
D. プロフゔ゗ル? プロパテゖ
Answer: C

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NO.7 あなたは Visual Studio2012 を使用して ASP .NET MVC ゕプリケ ーションを開発していま
す。 それが実行 され るときにゕ プリケ ーシ ョンが例外 をスロ ーし 、処理しま す。例 外が ス
ローされるときに、 あなたはゕプリケーションの状態を調べる必要があります。 何を行わな
ければなりませんか。
A. Visual Studio 2012 の Debug メニューから例外を選択する。 共通言語ランタ゗ム例外のスロ
ーのチェックボックスを有効にする。
B. Visual Studio 2012 の DEBUG メニューからプロセスにゕタッチを選択する。IIS プロセスを
選択する。
C. Visual Studio 2012 の Debug メニューから例外 を選択する。 共通言語ランタ゗ム例外のユー
ザー· 未処理のチェックボックスを無効にする。
D. Visual Studio 2012 の TOOLS メニューから カスタマ゗ズをクリックする。コマンド? タブを
クリックし、デバッグを選択する。
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 190-951

Nom d'Examen: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Application Development Update)

Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 190-950

Nom d'Examen: Lotus (Administering IBM Lotus Quickr 8.1 Services for Domino)

Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 190-957

Nom d'Examen: Lotus (Administering IBM Lotus Connections 2.0 )

Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 190-522

Nom d'Examen: Lotus (Deploying Domino R5 Applications)

Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 190-841

Nom d'Examen: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Implementing and Administering Security)

Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Brett wants to add a view to his XPage, configured so that it displays two rows for each entry in the view.
What technique can he use to accomplish this task?
A.Add a View control to the XPage and configure the view's NumberOfRows property to '2'.
B.Add a View control to the XPage and change the NumberOfRows property on the All Properties tab to
'2'.
C.Enable the Application property Use Java Views on Web and configure the view's NumberOfRows
property to '2'.
D.Add a Repeat control to the XPage and place the appropriate fields within the Repeat control in a two
row table.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Barb is the lead developer for the Sales application and the Travel application. Each application
consists of multiple databases. Within the application navigator, Barb would like to be able to list the
databases of the Sales application together, and then, separate from the Sales application, to list the
databases of the Travel application together. How can she do this?
A.For each application, create a subfolder under the Data folder. Move each set of databases to the
appropriate subfolder. Drag each folder onto the application navigator.
B.Click the folders icon within the application navigator. Select the option to Create a new Working Set.
Name the Working Set "Sales" and select the databases that comprise the Sales application. Perform a
similar procedure for the Travel application.
C.From Domino Designer select Create > Working Set. Specify "Sales" for the name. From the
application properties of each database of the Sales application, select "Sales" from the Working Set
drop-down list. Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
D.Edit the application properties of each database that comprises the Sales application. On the Design
tab, specify "Sales" for the Working Set option. Repeat for each database of the Sales application.
Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Pablo has created an XPage to use for browsing and editing customer data. He would like to add a
button which asks users if they are sure that they want to update the customer data. The button saves the
changes if users indicate that they are sure.
How can Pablo create this button?
A.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, select
Save as the button type, and enable the Confirm option.
B.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, select
Save as the button type. A confirmation prompt is included by default.
C.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a server-side simple action. Select Confirm
Action for the action.
D.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a client-side simple action. Select Confirm
Action for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The DiscussionTopics XPage includes a button to take users to the Feedback XPage. Ted has
created the Feedback XPage. He now wants to add a Save and close button that saves the user's input,
and take the user back to the DiscussionTopics XPage. What is one way he can do this task?
A.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();
B.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();context.getUrl("..");
C.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Document. Specify DiscussionTopics as the argument.
D.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Data Sources. Specify DiscussionTopics as the argument.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Farah has added the main.css stylesheet to her XPage. She wants to associate the helpText class
from main.css with the lblHelp Label control on the page. How can Farah do this task?
A.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas and enter this line:
B.Right-click lblHelp from the XPage. On the HTML tab of the Properties window, enter helpText for the
Class option.
C.Select the lblHelp control on the Xpage. From the Style tab of the Properties window, enter helpText for
the Class option.
D.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas. Locate the line. Below this line, add:
Answer: C

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NO.6 Ida has developed the needed functionality in the Customers XPage of her application. The Web
design team has provided her with the internal.css stylesheet. After Ida imports the stylesheet to her
application, how can she add the stylesheet to the XPage?
A.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. On the Style tab of the Properties view, click Add style sheet to
page and select internal.css.
B.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. Right-click in an open area of the XPage and open the Properties
window. Select internal.css for the Style Sheet option.
C.From the Applications view, select Resources > Style Sheets > internal.css. From the Wiring tab of the
Properties view, click Add and select XPage > Customers.
D.From the Applications view, double-click to open the internal.css stylesheet. From the Associations tab
of the Properties view, click Add association and select XPage > Customers.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Lainey has recently upgraded to Notes Domino 8.5. She is now exploring the design of her
applications to see what new features might be available. What is the purpose of the controls palette that
Lainey sees?
A.The controls palette contains controls, such as Edit Box, File Upload, and Table that the developer can
drag onto the XPage canvas.
B.The controls palette is another way to access the same items that are available from the Create menu
for forms, views, XPages and other design elements.
C.The controls palette contains items like Edit Box, Button, and Label that the developer can drag onto
XPages and forms. The controls palette is not available for views and pages.
D.The controls palette contains UI and other controls (such as Button, Link, and Image) that allow the
developer to drag controls onto XPage or page elements. The controls palette is not available for other
elements.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Nadine has discovered that XPages dynamically generates names of UI elements. She therefore
cannot know ahead of time what an element's name is when it is passed to the nWeb browser. What
function can Nadine use in her server-side JavaScript to fetch the generated element ID at runtime?
A.getClientId
B.getXpageElementId
C.toString(elementId())
D.toString(getElementId())
Answer: A

Lotus   190-951   190-951   190-951   190-951

NO.9 Abbas has imported the screen.css stylesheet into his application. He has discovered that he needs to
edit the properties of some of the classes in the CSS. What steps can he follow to make the needed
changes and save the CSS changes within the application?
A.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Double-click
screen.css to use the built-in CSS editor.
B.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Click
screen.css and in the Outline view select a class to use the built-in CSS editor.
C.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Design tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS class to
edit its properties.
D.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Web Properties tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS
class to edit its properties.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Devin has been developing an application that includes an XPage. When he opened the application in
Designer this morning, he noticed a small "x" icon by the XPages listing in the Applications view. He had
closed several of the Eclipse views yesterday, and does not see any errors displayed in the remaining
views. How can Devin locate the problems in the source code?
A.Right-click the "x" icon from the Applications view and select Go To Error. The Problems view displays
with the cursor at the first error.
B.Display the Problems view by selecting Window > Show Eclipse Views > Problems. Right-click a
displayed error and select Go To. The Source view opens to the line with the error.
C.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors. Double-click
the name of the XPage and the Source view opens to the line with the error.
D.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors. Double-click
the name of the XPage. The Source tab opens with the cursor at the first error line.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Odette is designing the index XPage that is used for navigation for her Domino application. For what
purpose might Odette use the Outline view in Domino Designer in Eclipse while working with the index
XPage?
A.To drag elements to rearrange sections and change the sequence of elements on the XPage.
B.To drag controls from the controls palette onto a hierarchical representation of the XML source code,
typically during the initial design of the XPage.
C.Aside from the expand and collapse icons, nothing in an Outline view is clickable. Nonetheless, the
Outline view provides an extremely useful means to browse the XML elements of an XPage.
D.The Outline view provides a hierarchical representation of the XML source code in XPages. The
developer can quickly update various settings from within the Outline view using right-click menu options
for each element.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Eamonn has developed and supported several Domino Web applications over the years. He has been
told that one of the benefits of XPages is that XPages are AJAX-enabled. What is a benefit that Eamonn
might expect to see if he incorporates AJAX-enabled XPages in his applications?
A.Faster development using Shared Widgets resources
B.Faster response time due to partial page refreshes
C.Faster response time because JavaScript is now all server-side
D.Faster development because XML is now automatically converted to JSON
Answer: B

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NO.13 Alegria has saved her rental XPage, but there's an error in the XML source code. She knows this
because the application navigator shows an icon of a red X next to the XPage. Where can she find details
about the error?
A.Editor
B.Events view
C.Problems view
D.Application navigator
Answer: C

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NO.14 Jack needs to display the release version of the Sales application on the top of each XPage of the site.
He has created a computed field at the top of the 'home' XPage, and is using this field to set the release
version. Jack also needs to create a computed field that is placed at the top of each linked Xpage.
What code should he provide for Computed Field of each linked page to display the release version?
A.environment("relVersion");
B.applicationScope("relVersion");
C.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += environment.get("relVersion");strVersion
D.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += applicationScope.get("relVersion");strVersion
Answer: D

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NO.15 Qiang needs to add a button to the Contact XPage. When clicked, this button should delete the
currently-open document from the application. What is one way that Qiang can add this button?
A.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the Operations tab, select Current document and Delete.
B.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. In the Options area of the properties, select Delete for the Action, and select Domino
Document for the Target.
C.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a server-side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
D.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a client-side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Kaitlyn has been asked to track which browser versions people are using to access the Customers
XPage. She wants to add code that writes the browser version to the server log whenever a user opens
the XPage.
What server-side code can Kaitlyn add to do this task?
A.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
var req = facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.getHeader("User-Agent"));
B.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
var req = facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.get(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
C.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
D.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader("User-Agent"));
Answer: A

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NO.17 Viktor has been asked to begin modifying the corporate Domino Web sites to adhere to XHTML
standards. He has enabled Enable enhanced HTML generation in the application properties. When
testing a couple of the page elements in the Web browser and viewing the source, Viktor notices that tags
like
and are still not correctly closed, that is.,
. What could be the problem?
A.This setting only applies to generated HTML, like passthrough HTML on a form.
B.The Web closes tags that have content. Tags that do not have content are ignored.
C.Each page element needs to be opened and saved to incorporate this new application property setting.
D.The Web server generates valid XML, but there are exceptions. One of the exceptions is passthrough
HTML.
Answer: D

Lotus examen   190-951   190-951   190-951

NO.18 Martha has a Submit button on her Timesheet XPage. When clicked, the button uses the Save
Document simple action to save the data to the underlying document. What parameters does Martha
have to provide to the Save Document simple action?
A.none
B.pageName, mergeConflicts
C.forceSave, createResponse
D.documentName, saveImmediate
Answer: A

Lotus   190-951 examen   190-951   190-951   190-951

NO.19 Neil has built an XPage and needs to have a field value to be calculated when the user selects
something from a Combo box control. How can he do this task?
A.Add server-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script Library to
execute the @SetField function.
B.Add client-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script Library to
execute the @SetField function.
C.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Modify Field type and define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
D.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Update Field type and define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
Answer: C

Lotus   certification 190-951   190-951 examen   190-951

NO.20 Cade is building an XPage for the Sales application. What are the options from which he can select
when defining a data source from the data palette?
A.@DbLookup and @DbColumn
B.Domino view and Domino document
C.Data connections and DB2 access views
D.Data connections, DB2 access views, and file resources
Answer: B

Lotus   190-951   190-951   certification 190-951

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Code d'Examen: JN0-343

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT))

Questions et réponses: 393 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-331

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (SEC,Specialist(JNCIS-SEC))

Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-522

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV))

Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-532

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FWV,Specialist (JNCIS -FWV))

Questions et réponses: 146 Q&As

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NO.1 Which OSPF LSA type is sent by all routers in an area to advertise its connected subnets?
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: A

Juniper   certification JN0-343   certification JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen

NO.2 Which two of the following are functions of the BGP update message? (Choose two.)
A. It withdraws routes that are no longer valid.
B. It notes that an unsupported option is detected from the open message.
C. It transports routing information between BGP peers.
D. It readvertises routes that have already been sent and acknowledged.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which OSPF area type can contain Type 7 LSAs?
A. backbone
B. not-so-stubby
C. stub
D. totally stubby
Answer: B

Juniper   certification JN0-343   JN0-343   certification JN0-343

NO.4 Which routing-instance type allows the sharing of interface routes and the support features used in
source-based routing?
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. multi-instance
Answer: C

certification Juniper   JN0-343 examen   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen

NO.5 Which BGP attributes are listed in the correct route selection order?
A. local preference, AS path, origin, MED
B. local preference, MED, AS path, origin
C. AS path, local preference, origin, MED
D. MED, origin, local preference, AS path
Answer: A

Juniper examen   JN0-343 examen   JN0-343 examen   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen

NO.6 Configuring bpdu-timeout-action enables which protection mechanism?
A. root protection
B. BPDU protection
C. loop protection
D. RSTP protection
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-343   JN0-343   certification JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.7 What is the minimum configuration necessary to create two VLANs and two operational RVIs?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

Juniper examen   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.8 Which statements are true about graceful Routing Engines switchover (GRES)?
A. Configuration on both Routing Engines must be synchronized.
B. The backup Routing Engine cannot be managed through IP address because RPD does not run on
backup the Routing Engine.
C. Different hostnames must be configured on both Routing-Engines.
D. Both Routing-Engines are managed through a single out-of-band-management IP address.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are two valid BPDU types? (Choose two.)
A. topology change notification
B. configuration change
C. configuration
D. root bridge
Answer: A,C

Juniper   JN0-343 examen   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen   JN0-343

NO.10 In the following output, what does the asterisk indicate?
A. The interface is configured as a trunk.
B. The interface is configured for spanning-tree protocol.
C. The interface is active.
D. The interface is inactive.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which protocol is an IGP?
A. LACP
B. STP
C. OSPF
D. PAGP
Answer: B

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NO.12 When processing inbound Ethernet frames, which firewall filter is evaluated first by an EX Series
switch?
A. port filter
B. VLAN filter
C. trunk filter
D. route filter
Answer: A

Juniper examen   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen

NO.13 Which command correctly assigns AS 65432 as the local router's autonomous system?
A. set protocols bgp local-as 65432
B. set routing-options local-as 65432
C. set protocols bgp autonomous-system 65432
D. set routing-options autonomous-system 65432
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.14 Which configuration summarizes external routes in the 172.16.0.0/22 range into a single prefix on an
ABR for Area 1?
A. protocols { ospf { area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa {
default-metric 1;
metric-type 1;
}
}
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
B. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
}
C. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
stub summaries;
}
}
}
D. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa;
area-range 172.16.0.0/22 restrict;
}
}
}
Answer: B

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NO.15 An administrator finds that traffic from a large file download over an HTTP session is not load-balanced
across multiple links in a LAG. What is the possible cause?
A. Per-packet load-balancing is not configured.
B. The redundant path has a different IGP metric.
C. The hash key is not configured in the forwarding-options stanza.
D. This is the expected behavior.
Answer: D

certification Juniper   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen   JN0-343

NO.16 Which of the following can be used for both security and loop prevention?
A. firewall filters
B. DHCP snooping
C. dynamic ARP inspection D. MAC move limiting
Answer: D

Juniper examen   certification JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.17 Which two OSPF LSA types can be used to advertise routes between areas? (Choose two.)
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: C,D

certification Juniper   JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.18 Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix?
A. per-flow load balancing
B. a floating static route
C. per-packet load balancing
D. a qualified next hop
Answer: A

Juniper   certification JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.19 Which three statements correctly describe the default BGP advertisement behavior in the Junos OS?
(Choose three.)
A. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to IBGP peers.
B. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to other EBGP peers.
C. Routes learned through IBGP are advertised to other IBGP peers.
D. Routes learned through IBGP will be advertised to EBGP peers.
E. Routes learned through an IGP are automatically advertised to EBGP peers.
Answer: A,B,D

Juniper   certification JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.20 How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet?
A. 24 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 48 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Answer: A

certification Juniper   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen

NO.21 What is the default behavior of a trunk port when it receives transit traffic without a VLAN tag?
A. It drops the traffic.
B. It forwards the traffic.
C. It tags the transit traffic with lowest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
D. It tags the transit traffic with highest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
Answer: A

Juniper examen   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.22 When loop protection is enabled on an interface, what happens when the port stops receiving BPDUs?
A. The port is placed in a loop-inconsistent role.
B. The port is placed into listening mode.
C. The port is transitioned into a forwarding state.
D. The interface is disabled.
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen   certification JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.23 Which of the following is enabled by default on an EX Series switch?
A. MAC move limiting
B. storm control
C. IP source guard
D. dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: B

Juniper   certification JN0-343   JN0-343   certification JN0-343   certification JN0-343

NO.24 Which Junos command correctly configures the ge-0/0/0.0 interface to operate only for IS-IS Level 2?
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 2 enable
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 1 disable
C. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 2 enable
D. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 1 disable
Answer: D

Juniper examen   certification JN0-343   JN0-343 examen   JN0-343

NO.25 Which configuration disables a port when more than 30,000 Kbps of broadcast traffic is received over
an aggregated Ethernet interface with two member links?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

certification Juniper   certification JN0-343   certification JN0-343

NO.26 What is the correct sequence of OSPF adjacency formation?
A. Down, Init, ExStart, 2way, Loading, Exchange, Full
B. Down, 2way, Init, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
C. Down, Init, 2way, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
D. Down, Init, 2way, Loading, ExStart, Exchange, Full
Answer: C

Juniper examen   JN0-343   JN0-343   certification JN0-343

NO.27 Which configuration correctly sets interface ge-0/0/4 in trunk mode, carrying VLANs v10 and v20?
A. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
} } }
B. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
}
}
}
C. ge-0/0/4 {
vlan-tagging;
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
}
}
}
D. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 10 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
unit 20 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
}
Answer: B

Juniper examen   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, in which spanning-tree state would the indicated port be.?
A. listening
B. learning
C. forwarding
D. blocking
Answer: C

Juniper examen   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen

NO.29 Which two pieces of information are communicated by IS-IS TLVs? (Choose two.)
A. network protocols supported
B. designated router priority
C. authentication key
D. PDU Length
Answer: A,C

Juniper examen   JN0-343   JN0-343

NO.30 Which statement describes the default Junos OS behavior for OSPF?
A. External LSAs are advertised in a stub area.
B. An ABR does not announce a default route into a stub area.
C. Stub area internal routers generate a default route.
D. Only totally stubby areas need a default route.
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-343   JN0-343   JN0-343 examen

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Code d'Examen: II0-001

Nom d'Examen: IISFA (Certified Information Forensics Investigator(CIFI))

Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

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NO.1 .Embedding a serial number or watermark into a data file is known as:
A. Hashing
B. Steganography
C. Message Digest
D. Imprinting
Answer: B

certification IISFA   II0-001   certification II0-001

NO.2 .Stream comparison used as a Traceback technique focuses on what two factors?
A. the IP address and victim port
B. the packet contents and audit logs
C. inter-packet timing and the victim port
D. the packet contents and inter-packet timing
Answer: D

IISFA   II0-001 examen   II0-001 examen

NO.3 .The most important network information that should be observed from the logs
during a Traceback is the intruder IP address, the victim IP address, the victim
port, protocol information and the:
A. source port
B. operating system
C. MAC address
D. timestamp
Answer: D

IISFA   II0-001 examen   II0-001   certification II0-001

NO.4 Drive geometry refers to
A. The algorithms used to computer a specific location of a particular segment.
B. The functional dimensions of a drive in terms of the number of heads, cylinders, and
sectors per track.
C. Physical dimensions of the drive platters.
D. The depth of the pits on optical media or magnetic field charge on magnetic media
Answer: B

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NO.5 .A new protocol that is designed to aid in intrusion protection and IP tracebacks is
known as:
A. Intruder Detection and Isolation Protocol (IDIP)
B. Intrusion Detection and Traceback Protocol (IDTP)
C. Facilitating Traceback Protocol (FTP)
D. Intruder Detection and Internet Protocol (IDIP)
Answer: A

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NO.6 .The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content on
websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 .If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be immediately
revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 .What is the difference between a zombie host and a reflector host?
A. Unlike a zombie, a reflector is a laundering host that fundamentally transforms
and/or delays the attacker's communications before they continue down the attack
path. (Zombie technique)
B. Unlike a zombie, a Traceback through the stepping stone host requires determining if
two communications streams, viewed at different points in the network, have the
same origin and are essentially the same stream. (stepping stone Traceback
technique)
C. Unlike a zombie host, the reflector is an uncompromised host that cooperates with
the attack in an innocent manner consistent with its normal function.
D. A zombie is a version of a reflector host.
Answer: C

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NO.9 ."Interesting data" is:
A. Data relevant to your investigation
B. Pornography
C. Documents, spreadsheets, and databases
D. Schematics or other economic based information
Answer: A

IISFA   certification II0-001   certification II0-001   certification II0-001

NO.10 Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001 examen   certification II0-001

NO.11 .In normal operation, a host receiving packets can determine their source by direct
examination of the source address field in the:
A. The IP packet header
B. Source code
C. Audit logs
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: A

IISFA   certification II0-001   II0-001

NO.12 .The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A

IISFA   certification II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001 examen   II0-001

NO.13 .In selecting Forensic tools for collecting evidence in the investigation of a crime the
standard for authenticating computer records is:
A. The same for authenticating other records. The degree of authentication does not
vary simply because a record happens to be (or has been at one point) in electronic
form.
B. Much more complex, and requires an expert to be present at each step of the process.
C. To convert the technical terms & definitions into a basic understandable language to
be presented as evidence.
D. To ensure the tools are equipped with logging to document the steps of evidence
collection.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .Social engineer is legal in the United States, Great Britain, Canada, and Australia as
long as the social engineer does not:
A. Attempt to extract corporate secrets
B. Lie
C. Apply the Frye Scenario
D. Live outside those countries
Answer: A

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NO.15 .All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   certification II0-001   II0-001

NO.16 .To perform a successful traceback, the two most prominent problems that need to
be solved are locating the source of IP packets and:
A. the timestamp of the event
B. determining the first node of a connection chain
C. the reflector host
D. the victim port
Answer: B

certification IISFA   II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001

NO.17 .Which of the following are characteristics of electronic Evidence?
A. Cannot be easily altered
B. Is not time sensitive
C. Should follow proper chain of custody
D. Must be decrypted
Answer: C

certification IISFA   II0-001   II0-001

NO.18 .The major disadvantage to techniques that attempt to mark IP packets as they move
through the internet is:
A. A decrease in network efficiency
B. An increase in the packet load
C. An increase in bandwidth consumption
D. All of the above
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001   II0-001 examen

NO.19 .One caution an investigator should take when examining the source of a network
attack is:
A. an occurrence of Social Engineering
B. relaxed physical security
C. the source IP address may have been spoofed
D. a sniffer could be on the network
Answer: C

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NO.20 .What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation and
recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-SWTINT1

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)

Questions et réponses: 43 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ISEB-SWT2

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level)

Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ISEB-ITILV3F

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)

Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

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NO.1 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage.?
If width > lenth then
Biggest_diension = width
If height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
Biggest_diension = length
If height>length
Then
Biggest_dimension = height
End_if
End_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: II0-001

Nom d'Examen: IISFA (Certified Information Forensics Investigator(CIFI))

Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

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NO.1 .Embedding a serial number or watermark into a data file is known as:
A. Hashing
B. Steganography
C. Message Digest
D. Imprinting
Answer: B

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NO.2 .Stream comparison used as a Traceback technique focuses on what two factors?
A. the IP address and victim port
B. the packet contents and audit logs
C. inter-packet timing and the victim port
D. the packet contents and inter-packet timing
Answer: D

IISFA   II0-001 examen   II0-001 examen

NO.3 .The most important network information that should be observed from the logs
during a Traceback is the intruder IP address, the victim IP address, the victim
port, protocol information and the:
A. source port
B. operating system
C. MAC address
D. timestamp
Answer: D

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NO.4 Drive geometry refers to
A. The algorithms used to computer a specific location of a particular segment.
B. The functional dimensions of a drive in terms of the number of heads, cylinders, and
sectors per track.
C. Physical dimensions of the drive platters.
D. The depth of the pits on optical media or magnetic field charge on magnetic media
Answer: B

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NO.5 .A new protocol that is designed to aid in intrusion protection and IP tracebacks is
known as:
A. Intruder Detection and Isolation Protocol (IDIP)
B. Intrusion Detection and Traceback Protocol (IDTP)
C. Facilitating Traceback Protocol (FTP)
D. Intruder Detection and Internet Protocol (IDIP)
Answer: A

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NO.6 .The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content on
websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 .If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be immediately
revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 .What is the difference between a zombie host and a reflector host?
A. Unlike a zombie, a reflector is a laundering host that fundamentally transforms
and/or delays the attacker's communications before they continue down the attack
path. (Zombie technique)
B. Unlike a zombie, a Traceback through the stepping stone host requires determining if
two communications streams, viewed at different points in the network, have the
same origin and are essentially the same stream. (stepping stone Traceback
technique)
C. Unlike a zombie host, the reflector is an uncompromised host that cooperates with
the attack in an innocent manner consistent with its normal function.
D. A zombie is a version of a reflector host.
Answer: C

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NO.9 ."Interesting data" is:
A. Data relevant to your investigation
B. Pornography
C. Documents, spreadsheets, and databases
D. Schematics or other economic based information
Answer: A

IISFA   certification II0-001   certification II0-001   certification II0-001

NO.10 Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001 examen   certification II0-001

NO.11 .In normal operation, a host receiving packets can determine their source by direct
examination of the source address field in the:
A. The IP packet header
B. Source code
C. Audit logs
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: A

IISFA   certification II0-001   II0-001

NO.12 .The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A

IISFA   certification II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001 examen   II0-001

NO.13 .In selecting Forensic tools for collecting evidence in the investigation of a crime the
standard for authenticating computer records is:
A. The same for authenticating other records. The degree of authentication does not
vary simply because a record happens to be (or has been at one point) in electronic
form.
B. Much more complex, and requires an expert to be present at each step of the process.
C. To convert the technical terms & definitions into a basic understandable language to
be presented as evidence.
D. To ensure the tools are equipped with logging to document the steps of evidence
collection.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .Social engineer is legal in the United States, Great Britain, Canada, and Australia as
long as the social engineer does not:
A. Attempt to extract corporate secrets
B. Lie
C. Apply the Frye Scenario
D. Live outside those countries
Answer: A

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NO.15 .All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   certification II0-001   II0-001

NO.16 .To perform a successful traceback, the two most prominent problems that need to
be solved are locating the source of IP packets and:
A. the timestamp of the event
B. determining the first node of a connection chain
C. the reflector host
D. the victim port
Answer: B

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NO.17 .Which of the following are characteristics of electronic Evidence?
A. Cannot be easily altered
B. Is not time sensitive
C. Should follow proper chain of custody
D. Must be decrypted
Answer: C

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NO.18 .The major disadvantage to techniques that attempt to mark IP packets as they move
through the internet is:
A. A decrease in network efficiency
B. An increase in the packet load
C. An increase in bandwidth consumption
D. All of the above
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001   II0-001 examen

NO.19 .One caution an investigator should take when examining the source of a network
attack is:
A. an occurrence of Social Engineering
B. relaxed physical security
C. the source IP address may have been spoofed
D. a sniffer could be on the network
Answer: C

IISFA examen   II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001 examen

NO.20 .What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation and
recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001   II0-001   certification II0-001

Les meilleures IBM 000-446 000-417 000-730 000-142 000-175 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-446

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Content Manager OnDemand for i5/OS)

Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-417

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)

Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-730

Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 Fundamentals)

Questions et réponses: 303 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-142

Nom d'Examen: IBM (XML 1.1 and Related Technologies)

Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-175

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, Development (Entry))

Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 A client application on z/OS must access a DB2 database on a Solaris Server. At a minimum, which of
the following products must be installed on the Solaris workstation?
A. DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition and DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

IBM   000-730   000-730

NO.2 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Linux server
that has 6 CPUs?
A. DB2 Express Edition
B. DB2 Personal Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D

IBM   000-730   000-730

NO.3 Which of the following can be viewed with the Journal?
A. Historical information about tasks, database changes, messages, and notifications
B. Information about licenses associated with each DB2 9 product installed on a particular system
C. Graphical representations of data access plans chosen for SQL statements
D. Warning and alarm thresholds for database indicators
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following products is used to shred extensible markup language documents?
A. DB2 AVI Extender
B. DB2 Text Extender
C. DB2 XML Extender
D. DB2 Spatial Extender
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following products must be installed on an AIX server in order to build an application for
AIX that will access a DB2 for z/OS database?
A. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
B. DB2 Personal Developer's Edition
C. DB2 Universal Developer's Edition
D. DB2 Universal DatabaseEnterprise Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to set DB2 registry parameters?
A. Task Center
B. Visual Explain
C. Configuration Assistant
D. Satellite Administration Center
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-730   certification 000-730   000-730   000-730

NO.7 Which of the following is the major difference between relational data and XML data?
A. Relational data is self-describing; XML data is not
B. Relational data has inherent ordering; XML data does not
C. Relational data must be tabular; XML data does not have to be tabular
D. Relational data is comprised of entities; XML data is comprised of numbers, characters, and dates
Answer: C

IBM   000-730 examen   certification 000-730   000-730

NO.8 Which of the following is used to create and debug user-defined functions?
A. SQL Assist
B. Control Center
C. Command Editor
D. Developer Workbench
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following describes how DB2 9 stores an XML document if the XML Extender is not used?
A. CLOB
B. BLOB
C. Hierarchically
D. Rows and columns
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-730   certification 000-730   000-730   000-730

NO.10 What is the purpose of the Design Advisor?
A. To analyze workloads and make recommendations for indexes and MQTs
B. To present a graphical representation of a data access plan and recommend design changes that will
improve performance
C. To replicate data between a DB2 database and another relational database
D. To configure clients so they can access databases stored on remote servers
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-730   certification 000-730

NO.11 Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A. Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B. Data can be retrieved byXQuery.
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D. Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole document.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an HP-UX server?
A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Express
C. DB2 Personal Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D

IBM   000-730 examen   000-730

NO.13 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an OLTP database?
A. Granular transactions
B. Current data
C. Optimized for queries
D. Frequent updates
Answer: C

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NO.14 For which of the following is a data warehouse optimized?
A. Backup and recovery
B. Transactions
C. Security
D. Queries
Answer: D

IBM   000-730 examen   000-730   000-730 examen

NO.15 Which of the following tools can be used to automate table reorganization operations?
A. Control Center
B. Command Center
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following best describes the difference between the DB2 Spatial Extender and the DB2
Geodetic Extender?
A. The DB2 Spatial Extender uses a latitude-longitude coordinate system; the DB2 Geodetic Extender
uses a planar, x- and y-coordinate system
B. The DB2 Geodetic Extender is used to describe points, lines, and polygons; the DB2 Spatial Extender
is used to find area, endpoints, and intersects
C. The DB2 Spatial Extender treats the world as a flat map; the DB2 Geodetic Extender treats the world
as a round globe
D. The DB2 Geodetic Extender can be used to manage information like the locations of office buildings or
the size of a flood zone; the DB2 Spatial Extender can be used for calculations and visualizations in
disciplines like military command/control and asset management, meteorology and oceanography
Answer: C

IBM   000-730 examen   000-730   000-730

NO.17 Which of the following tools can be used to catalog a database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Alert Center
C. Journal
D. Configuration Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following tasks can NOT be performed using the Developer Workbench?
A. Develop and debug an SQL stored procedure
B. Develop and debug a user-defined data type
C. Develop and debug a user-defined function
D. Develop and run XML queries
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be run every
Sunday evening?
A. Journal
B. Task Center
C. Activity Monitor
D. Command Line Processor
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two of the following allow you to perform administrative tasks against database objects?
A. Control Center
B. Journal
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
E. Health Center
Answer: AC

IBM   000-730   certification 000-730   000-730 examen

NO.21 Which of the following is the main feature of an OLTP application?
A. Summarized queries
B. Granular transactions
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Heterogeneous data sources
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-730   000-730

NO.22 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Windows server
that has 2 CPUs?
A. DB2 Everyplace
B. DB2 Express Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-730   000-730   000-730

NO.23 Which of the following is true about XML columns?
A. XML columns are used to store XML documents as a hierarchical set of entities
B. OnlyXQuery can be used to retrieve an XML document from an XML column
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent/child relationships if they are used in
referential constraints
D. In order to access any portion of an XML document stored in an XML column, the entire document
must be retrieved
Answer: A

IBM   000-730 examen   000-730   000-730 examen   000-730 examen

NO.24 Which of the following products is allowed to access other DB2 servers, but cannot accept requests
from other remote clients.?
A. DB2 Personal Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
D. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an application against
a DB2 for i5/OS database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Activity Monitor
C. SQL Performance Monitor
D. DB2 Performance Monitor
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-730   certification 000-730   000-730

NO.26 Which of the following DB2 products can only be installed on a System i server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 for i5/OS
C. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-730 examen   000-730   000-730

NO.27 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a data warehouse?
A. Summarized queries that perform aggregations and joins
B. Heterogeneous data sources
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Sub-second response time
Answer: D

IBM   000-730   certification 000-730   000-730   certification 000-730

NO.28 What is the SQL Performance Monitor used for?
A. To examine the health of a DB2 Database Manager instance
B. To visually construct complex DML statements and examine the results of their execution
C. To schedule tasks, run tasks, and send notifications about completed tasks to other users
D. To analyze database operations performed against a DB2 for i5/OS database "Pass Any
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-730 examen   000-730   certification 000-730

NO.29 Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to improve the
performance of DB2 applications?
A. Design Advisor
B. Visual Explain
C. Performance Advisor
D. Configuration Assistant
Answer: A

IBM   000-730 examen   000-730   000-730 examen   000-730 examen   000-730

NO.30 Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that machine to
access data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D. z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Answer: A

IBM   000-730   certification 000-730   000-730 examen